I have a fannie mae 1st and a Wells Fargo 2nd. If the 1st is made whole plus more, can the first apply the overage to the 2nd above the $6000?
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Comments
If the 1st is a full payoff, the money leftover would be allotted to the subordinate liens. If the 1st is a full payoff than the investors guidelines don't play a role on that note since it's not a short sale.
Brett@ishortsalenow.com
310-564-6389
www.ishortsalenow.com