This is how much I don't know.  We have plenty to pay off the first so need no approval, the brokerage and all closing cost, and then there will still be at least 70k left.  The B of A has a 2nd at 160k.  The owner has not paid on either for over a year and his family has all moved except him but is packing up to go now.  He was just going to let the first lender foreclose which they will be doing shortly.  I have suggested that he let me try to see if I can get this offer thru and possibly a little money for him to move forward.  This is the first offer and the property needs lots and lots of work. Does anyone think that this may work, say if we offer BofA 40k and give him 30k or is this not a possibility.  If not he can just walk away as he intended  Thanks for any input.

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BofA is owed 160 on the second and you want to give them 40K and give the seller 30K?  Why does the seller feel that they deserve 30K when they have not paid in over a year?   I think you can make this happen but without the seller receiving any money.  

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