Borrower sold home "subject to existing loan" with no cash and buyer does not want home

I'm curious to see if anyone else has come across this scenario:

 

Borrower is underwater, got divorced and has no job/money and in danger of losing home so he sells home to a buyer "subject to" the existing loan...no proceeds, free rent for a few months but no cash to borrower/seller. Thought this was his best way out from under the home.

 

Buyer decides that there is no upside to the property and decides it was not such a good deal afterall and makes no loan or tax payments

 

Original owner "thought" the loan was to be assumed and complains to Bank of America.  B of A then threatens to accelerate the loan under the due on sale clause.

Original owner now wants to short sale the property.

 

I've initiated the short sale on behalf of the original owner and the buyer who backed out is willing to sign whatever to get out of it. Are there any upcoming pitfalls?

 

Original owner has valid hardships...loss of income, loss of value, divorce and more. Has no assets, no income and is stuck again but willing to short sale especially if he can get some help with moving assistance.

 

I'm curious to hear if anyone has been involved in one of these types of transactions and/or if there is any helpful advice.

 

Thanks,

Jim.

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Replies to This Discussion

The practical side of this is not overly uncommon. Get the deed signed back to the original owner and you should be back to square one with the bank. The bank will want to be sure that anyone with any potential claim to the property is agreeing to whatever short sale the bank agrees to. Having everything as it was and as the bank expects is the simplest and fastest. You have the note, mortgage and deed. Only the deed has changed, so a change back is simple and fast.

You may have investor problems. If the property has not been inhabited by the owner for a while, FHA will not allow a short sale, for instance. Ginny Mae is anal about the owner never renting the property. Not receiving rent might help.

It would be good to find who the investor is (MERS online might be helpful) and call to see about their criteria, if possible. I used to get the investor by calling the regular customer service (after faxing to them the authorization).

I have not done one of these with BofA however I had something similar where a seller basically refinanced with a hard money lender who never paid off the loan and filed a another lien on the property (CA).  I expect BofA will not be cooperative and will likely move forward with due on sale so they can foreclose quicker.  With no taxes or payments made for a while there is no benefit to BofA to allow the short sale.

BTW,  Who is living in the property? The original owner or the opportunist buyer?  How long ago did this "transaction" happen?


Good luck !

Much will depend on how the transfer to the "buyer" was done. Was a deed recorded? If not then this is probably not an issue at all. If it was then just have the buyer deed it back over to the borrower then proceed as usual.

Of course bank of America could choose to just foreclose but it is certainly worth a shot. I'd take this short sale in a heart beat as long as the borrower and buyer are both in agreement to do what needs to be done.

And of course they should seek legal advice.

The bank won't care who is in title on the deed for the short sale so you certainly could just start the short sale with the original owner, Owner A. Of course, for your listing, you would need Owner A and Owner B but that would complicate issues for Bank of America. Therefore, the easiest way to move forward is for Owner A to record a quitclaim from Owner B back to Owner A. Technically, you probably could process the short sale with Owner A and record the QCD at closing but you wouldn't have a valid listing contract.

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