What's a good Rule-of-Thumb for a good risk offer to satistfy a lender when the 1st & 2nd combined value are w/in the market value range?
Assuming there are no other players involved (MI, investors, etc.), the real questions are:
- Are lenders and negotiators considering 85-92% of real market values a good risk offer to satistfy the 1st & 2nd combined w/in the true market value range?